Originally Posted by
Eng.Jackadmans
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They dont need to know that do they? (Then I guess you don't need to know what they have done either.)If a guy uses a condom, that means thier a virgin(WRONG again.). There is nothing you can do to prove otherwise.(Sure there is, most male virgins NOT ALL but most, are premature ejaculators or barely get it in without losing it, are you trying to say... you can't get it in without you know... HAHAHAHA, then you just might be a virgin!)
Why is that unlikely? if you take all girls, as a common set variable A.
And the number of times they had sexual experience as namespace 1, 2, 3......n.
Then it can be assumed that in the probability of a given variable to reach point N, namespace 1 must occur with probability of 1. It is true that you are more likely to find a girl at namespace > 1. But every variable must have namespace 1 occur before reaching N based on inference.